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expression ‗day of Christ‘ only appears in two out of the six reference! The others are
―the day of our Lord Jesus Christ,‖ ―the day of Jesus Christ,‖ ―the day of the Lord
Jesus,‖ ―the day of Jesus Christ.‖ The day is found in every possible combination of
the component parts of the full title of the Son of God─the Lord Jesus Christ. Any
attempt therefore to make an important distinction based on two occurrence of the
phrase (Phil. 1:10, 2:16), both of which are devoid of any eschatological significance
whatever, is unbounded presumption. Neither is Dr. Scofield qualified to say that the
A. V. has ―incorrectly‖ the ―day of Christ‖ in 2 Thess. 2:2. There is a difference in the
A. V. and R. V. at this point. As we have pointed out already, the A. V. was translated
from the excellent Textus Receptus while the R. V. has largely deferred to variant
readings found in the Codex Sinaiticus. The dissimilarity in the translations at this
point does not prove the A. V. to be ―incorrect,‖ it only suggests that even in the
extant texts of the original the terms were interchangeable. Is not Christ, the Lord?‖
How then would there logically be a distinction between the ―day of Christ‖ and the
―day of the Lord?‖ Beloved, there is no such distinction. Any attempt to make one is
another futile and feverish effort to wrest the scripture to prove a false theory.
The parousia, the epiphaneia, the apokalupsis, the day, the end, all synchronize at
one great crisis ―at the last day.‖ Christ will not leave the right hand of the Father,
until He is ready to complete the conquest of His enemies. ―Sit thou on my right hand,
until I make thine enemies thy footstool!‖ He will leave His place at the right hand of
the Father and descend to earth to conquer and reign. As He descends the sleeping
saints will rise and the living and surviving saints will together with them be raptured
to meet Him in His descent, returning to earth in His train, and all in a few moments,
at the last day.
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